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September 15, 2007

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I gather that Cassidy's main point, which does not seem very "stupid" to me, is that Greenspan reignited a speculative bubble after the tech bubble had collapsed. Whether it was in 2002 or somewhat later seems rather beside the point .

I have been looking at:

http://stockcharts.com/charts/YieldCurve.html

For some time.

If the yield curves shown for 2002-2004 are an accurate reflection of what was known then, well, they looked in reasonable shape to me, gaussian shaped, more or less, a well balanced apportionment risk across the curve.

If the system was assumed to be acting as a Hamiltonian (not Alex but the physics guy) then we would expect a momentum toward the asset side of the curve, so a rise in interest rates would boost the liability side of the curve, a countervaling force.

Hence, my logic says that a June 2003 reduction in rates was opposite of what we needed.

By Mar, 2005, the curve was beginning to mis-shape. So, if only the yield curve shape was of interest, then a spike in interest rates at the dip, when the curve began to look very shapely, followed by a few downward changes as the economy picked up.

I think Greenspan was out of phase.

Why is it considered good to have 2%-3% inflation per year, but a terrible thing to have deflation?

How much of the recovery was due to spending from such as home equity loans that have to be paid back? It seems that a consumer spending slowdown will be inevitable.

wood turlte-because deflation runs into the zero interest rate bound. Assume a bond that pays a nominal annual rate of 3.5% so a real rate of zero with inflation around 3.5%. Now assume deflation of 1%. To keep a real rate of zero, you'd need an interest rate of -1%, but no one would buy that bond because cash gives you a 0% rate.

So bad things can happen. Liquidity can be a big problem

the only deflation there was was lowering car prices due to the new cars flooding the market with the jOe BazOOka interest rates

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