Source: Jan de Vries lecture, 2/13/2008
Male laborer wage divided by the cost of 2000 cheap calories
- rice in China
- polenta in Milan
- rye bread in Leipzig
- oats in Amsterdam and London.
In 1740 laborers in Leipzig, Beijing, Suzhou, and Milan could barely keep body and soul together
- if their work was not too strenuous
- if they did not have too many non-working dependents
- then they could afford to buy basic calories--and not much more
By contrast, laborers in London and Amsterdam are different
- appear to be living the life of Riley
- only a quarter of their wages needed for basic calories
- but this is if people in London ate oats
- and oats were for Scotsmen--and horses: Englishmen ate wheat bread; calories from wheat-based bread were two to three times the cost of calories from oats.
So were workers in London in 1740 miserably poor, spending most if not all on their income on bare caloric maintenance in the grain typical of their time and place?
- Or were the workers of London relatively rich--and deciding to spend their wealth on the superior taste and mouth feel of yeasty wheat bread
- and on the associated symbolic declaration that they were proud and free Englishmen
- not benighted barbarous Scots (or horses)?
Is there really reliable data on wages and food prices in London, Amsterdam, Milan, Leipzig, Beijing and Shanghai in 1740?
[Yes.]
Was there really enough world trade to establish a meaningful comparison of wages?
[Yes.]
Were the markets in currency rational and transparent enough that we can feel confident of these comparisons?
[Yes]
Surely there is a factor for error here, a percentage by which these estimates might be wrong by?
[Perhaps 25%, at most.]
If so, it would be good to know what the margin for error is.
Posted by: Lawrence Krubner | February 24, 2008 at 05:16 PM